WHEN YOU SELL a bad securities investment, the one saving grace is that you can at least claim a capital loss deduction, right?
Not necessarily. In fact, all or part of your capital loss deduction will be disallowed for federal income tax purposes if the dreaded wash-sale rule applies. And thanks to some recent IRS guidance, you now have to worry about IRA transactions triggering a wash sale problem, too. Here's an update on how the wash-sale rule works:
When you have a disallowed wash-sale loss, it doesn't just vaporize (except when an IRA is used to acquire substantially identical securities, which I'll explain later). Instead, the disallowed loss gets added to the tax basis of the acquired securities — the ones that triggered the wash-sale rule in the first place.
Then, when you sell those securities, the extra basis from the disallowed wash-sale loss either reduces your tax gain or increases your tax loss. In effect, the disallowed loss is converted into a "built-in loss" that will be taken into account when you sell the substantially identical securities. By the same logic, your holding period for the substantially identical securities is increased by the period you held the securities for which the loss was disallowed.
Example: Say you bought 1,000 shares of Acme Bank on Jan. 2 for $20,000 and then the shares began to plummet. Being a tax-smart person (or so you thought), you bailed out on July 10 for a paltry $12,000. As a result, you have an indicated $8,000 short-term capital loss ($20,000 basis - $12,000 sales proceeds). You intend to use that loss to shelter an equal amount of 2008 capital gains. Having bagged your tax savings (or so you thought), you then reacquire 1,000 shares of Acme Bank on Aug. 1 for $11,000. Sadly, you are blissfully unaware of the wash-sale rule, which disallows the $8,000 tax loss you were expecting. Now, the disallowed loss is added into the equation, increasing the tax basis of the new Acme Bank shares you acquired on Aug. 1 to $19,000 ($11,000 to buy the shares + $8,000 for the disallowed loss). In addition, the holding period for those shares is increased by the six-plus months you held the original Acme Bank shares.
What about the reverse situation, where a stock is sold in a Roth IRA at a loss and then bought in a taxable account within 30 days? Is the loss amount added to the cost basis in the taxable account? For example, sell in the Roth at a loss of $500, then buy the same stock the same day in a taxable account for $1000; later when I sell in the taxable account, is my basis $1000 or $1500?
Straight from the IRS Ruling: 'This ruling provides that if an individual sells stock or securities for a loss and causes his or her IRA or Roth IRA to purchase substantially identical stock or securities within a specified period, the loss on the sale of the stock or securities is disallowed under section 1091 of the Code, and the individual's basis in the IRA or Roth IRA is not increased by virtue of section 1091(d).'
Thanks for looking that up for us. Now we see that this rule is really targeted at Roth IRA's. Before the rule, you could sell stock while it was down and take a write-off, then re-buy in your Roth IRA and not pay taxes on any subsequent gains. Now you just don't take the write-off and all is fair because it's as if you just transferred the asset into your Roth and are pretending you bought it in the Roth to begin with.
With a traditional IRA (or 401K), before the rule you could escape the wash sale rule and use it for early tax write-offs in a year w...(Read more of this comment)
DISREGARD MY LAST POST. I missed some edits. This one makes more sense!
With regard to what constitutes 'substantially identical' securities in the world of ETF's and mutual funds, the IRS has not made a specific ruling on this (yet). A S&P 500 mutual fund from one company and a S&P 500 mutual fund from another company would be 'substantially identical' since they own the exact same stocks. Any actively managed fund would be unique in my opinion (and not 'substantially identical' to another), even if they both have the same general type of securities -- for example large cap domestic stocks. We'll have to wait for the IRS to be more specific on this. In the meantime, it pays to play it safe. Keep those sales and purchases of potentially identical funds more than 31 days apart.
With regard to what constitutes 'substantially identical' securities in the world of ETF's and mutual funds, the IRS has not made a specific ruling on this (yet). The wash-sale rule apparently applies to securities. For instance, you can't sell A S&P 500 mutual fund from one company and another S&P 500 mutual fund from some other company would be 'substantially identical' since they own the exact same stocks. Any actively managed fund would be unique in my opinion (and not 'substantially identical' to another), even if they both have the same general type of securities -- for example large cap domestic stocks. We'll have to wait for the IRS to be more specific on this. In the meantime, it pays to play it safe. Keep those sales and purchases of potentially identical funds more than 31 days apart.
>>For example, sell in the Roth at a loss of $500, then buy the same stock the same day in a taxable account for $1000; later when I sell in the taxable account, is my basis $1000 or $1500?<<
Since the IRS rules do not specify, I believe it is safest to simply use the $1000 purchase price and forfeit the $500 write down. Otherwise you'd have to explain where the added basis comes from.